That's a pretty bold claim. Seemingly by adding some numbers without explanation. Since you didn't bother to explain why you think you can draw that conclusion from those numbers, I won't bother to do the opposite.
Sufficient to say: You can't draw that conclusion from those metrics.
jjmarr•31m ago
If you add together the sizes of the EU + Chinese markets in nominal dollars it's less than the American one.
I used nominal dollars over PPP because that is what determines where multinationals choose to sell products. If one sells something for $5 in China and $10 in the USA, the PPP adjustment doesn't result in one receiving $17.
I'm not sure what other mechanisms I'd use to measure the size of the consumer market. Physical volume or mass?
tromp•49m ago
According to that table, it's larger than the EU and China and India combined (with the leftover enough to include Belgium as well).
_Microft•48m ago
Nominally. Corrected for purchasing power, it’s only approximately 50% higher than either of them.
jsiepkes•50m ago
Sufficient to say: You can't draw that conclusion from those metrics.
jjmarr•31m ago
I used nominal dollars over PPP because that is what determines where multinationals choose to sell products. If one sells something for $5 in China and $10 in the USA, the PPP adjustment doesn't result in one receiving $17.
I'm not sure what other mechanisms I'd use to measure the size of the consumer market. Physical volume or mass?