Can they really distinguish between the impact of language on these domains rather than culture? It could be the language you speak, or it could be that you're surrounded exclusively by other people that operate this way.
French is a second language for many countries. So that may provide data as well.
Sure maybe you could isolate a bunch of scholars and give them a specification of Chinese and ask them to go at it, which is maybe what we do with Latin and Greek.
I would struggle to see how someone could earnestly argue the opposite, that language doesn't shape thought, when Chinese doesn't use conjugation, has looser notions of tense, has no direct/indirect article, uses glyphs instead of an alphabet, can be read top to bottom, right to left, left to right and doesn't use spaces to delimit words. That's even before we talk about tones or the highly monosyllabic nature of the language alters things like memorisation. (ever notice how Chinese people are often good at memorising numbers?)
Both are abstractions that use symbolic representation
Both are designed for human understanding
Both have quirks that make them better or worse at certain kinds of abstraction
comparison != analogy.
Any RTL native can confirm that they visualize time as flowing from right to left? Because this puzzles me a lot!
"Absence of negatively biased mental verbs in English slows down the development of Theory of Mind. Children acquiring Spanish (which has verbs indicating false belief) have better performance in false-belief tasks."
But as a Spanish speaker I don't know what verbs is this referring to. On top of my head I can only think of the word "disbelieve" which doesn't have an exact, single word translation, but that's the opposite of what the quote seems to imply. Other verbs like deceive, doubt, misunderstand or imagine do have matching translations in both languages. What am I missing here?
[1] according to https://ojs.ub.uni-konstanz.de/sub/index.php/sub/article/vie... for example. I don’t know enough Spanish to say if the verb really works this way. Verbs like this are called “contrafactive”
How does yiwei/creerse differ from "Juan doubts that they are going to promote him"?
Juan does not doubt, the speaker does.
Note that creerse is creer+se.
In the "doubts" case, Juan believes that they are not going to promote him. There is no assertion regarding the truth value of that belief.
Really? Huh, maybe. I suppose, guess, imagine, assume, opine, claim, that none of these verbs carry a strong enough connotation of falsehood. There's take for granted, but it's unwieldy. I fancy that the verb fancy would be very suitable for the job, but it makes one sound like an 1850s Southern Belle.
I found an article that offers "fall for it" as a translation for "creérsela" (te la creíste/se la creyó) and I agree.
https://www.tellmeinspanish.com/grammar/creer-vs-creerse/
In the form of "creerse" it can also mean "believe in yourself" which used to have the same connotation of being mistakenly overconfident, although in the last couple of years I've started to see more "debes de creértela" Linkedin memes which have the opposite (true belief) connotation, more like "fake it till you make it".
If anyone's confused, don't worry. This verb always means "believe", the only difference is in the subtle connotations but they never affect the actual meaning.
"Juan thinks they are going to promote him, but I'm not so sure."
I was interested to learn just now that Chinese dictionaries don't bother to mention this. I assume the reason is that the analogous construction in Classical Chinese has no such implication.
By contrast, Chinese-English dictionaries vary from noting that 以为 "usually" refers to mistaken belief to outright defining it that way.
The connotative form which immediately comes to mind is the various forms of “notion”. Its primary use case is to indicate that the thing it refers to is likely false and has no connection to reality.
If anything, a solid counter argument can be made that Romance languages (descended from Latin) lack the flexibility of English and other Germanic languages.
Non primary English speakers frequently complain that English is more complicated than other languages. This is true. I'm a native speaker and only can read limited Spanish. Where I get hung up is the dependence on gender of objects. Similar experience with Japanese when I was studying that a few years ago.
I completely believe that primary language has a physical effect on the brain in terms of neural structure. It must have.
But since English is so adaptable, if there's a concept that is better expressed in another language we tend to adopt the words of other languages to express it.
However other languages seem to be less adaptable. For example, France has or had an official government ministry for decades to manage new foreign words entering the French language. To this day, there are newish specific French words for technologies coming from English speaking countries.
Another good example is some YouTube videos from India I've run across. (I turn on subtitles). But say the speaker is talking in Hindi. Many times more technical terms are English words or phrases that are freely interspersed with Hindi. They're borrowing the English words, with a bit of a Hindi dialect hitting the pronunciation.
Going back to Japanese, we see the same thing. I don't know if the JP gov has a language ministry.
But if you look at written Japanese text you definitely see that most numerology is written with western/English 0-9 characters mixed with katakana or hiragana. When you hear people speaking, and once your ear is oriented towards Japanese sounds, you can start to pick up on the adopted English words that are said with a native dialect emphasis.
Philosopher Paul Grice suggested a handful of simple rules that apply ‘to conversation as such, regardless of its subject matter’ [106]. The Gricean individual is a rational agent who is expected to quickly provide just enough information, not more, nor less, than necessary and relevant in any given communicative situation. When such an individual flouts one of these principles, their interlocutors will infer the intended meaning of an utterance is different from its literal meaning.
That's a useful observation. It brings out the problems of business-speak and political-speak. It isn't entirely a language distinction. It's possible to obfuscate and blither in many languages. Orwell observed this decades ago. Some languages seem to encourage it more than others, but that may be a linguistic style thing more than a language thing.
LLMs are sometimes given prompt preludes to push them into a Gricean mode. Without an incentive, LLMs tend to go into stochastic parrot mode and blither.
amarant•1h ago
Best I can describe it is that I gained a new perspective.